Third section. Sorry about all the “ref1” and “ref2” stuff; he decided to scan pages and include them on his website as images, rather than as text. So that’s how they ended up here.
In II Kings 17:16, we read that the people worshiped all the Host of Heaven, and they worshiped Baal. We know that the host of heaven was being worshiped during the time of the kings of Israyl, for the Scriptures say that they were. The word translated HOST in this Scripture is word #6635 in Strong’s Hebrew Dictionary; the word Tse-ba’ah, which means: mass of persons, company, army.
Then in Isayah 65:11, KJV, we find the word troop mentioned.
Do you really think that the original Hebrew version of Isaiah said the actual English word “troop” in it?
The center reference of The King James Version will show you what the word troop means:
***ref1***
The word troop means: gad, which is a euphemism for God, as Webster’s Deluxe Unabridged Dictionary, Second Edition, page 746, indicates:
***ref2***
“Gad” can mean many different things, as it’s been used as a label for all sorts of varied concepts. “Gad” was one of the Tribes of Israel, if I recall correctly, as well as the names of various individuals. In the case of Isaiah, though, it has a clear meaning. Isaiah was describing the Hebrews backsliding and worshipping the local gods. One of those gods was actually named Gad. If you look at the Hebrew scriptures, you’d see that. You looked at the Hebrew text earlier on, when looking up “host” in II Kings; why did you conveniently ignore the Hebrew text in this case and instead try pretending that the English word “gad” was what the Hebrews has used?
The host of heaven that Yahweh condemned our fathers for turning to was GAD, or the English equivalent, GOD.
You’re mixing up II Kings with Isaiah here. II Kings was about the host of heaven. Isaiah was about Gad. Gad was not the host of heaven.
Nor does English “God” come from “Gad”. Using Webster’s Deluxe Unabridged Dictionary, which you yourself appear to consider a proper and reliable source, “God” comes from the early Germanic languages, which are part of the Indo-European language family. The Semitic word used in Isaiah, however, comes from a completely different language group. They are not related. “Gad” does not equal “God”.
I realize that many will ask, “Isn’t the word GOD a name for the Creator?” Or they will ask, “Isn’t the LORD a holy name?” The Scriptural answer to these questions is a definite NO!
Of course they’re not, since they’re titles, not names. Nor would “God” and “Lord” have been used in the original scriptures, as has already been mentioned. The Hebrew texts would have used something else, such as as the form of “elohim” (such as you had in your earlier quotations from Deuteronomy) that the Hebrew texts have in Genesis.
If you have a reliable Bible dictionary, you can research these words for yourself. If you do not, you may go to your nearest library where these Bible helps are available, and you will find the FOLLOWING in Unger’s Bible Dictionary, Merrill F. Unger, Moody Press, Chicago, IL, under the word Baal on page 413, which says:
***ref3***
That doesn’t say much of anything about what you were talking about. It does, however, say that the Hebrews were “bound to serve a holy God”. This source, then, finds “God” to be a perfectly acceptable title for Christians to use.
As we have just read: The Name of the Creator is Yahweh, and should have been retained in that form in The Holy Scriptures. The words Lord and God are NOT RIGHTEOUS titles and are NOT to be used as titles of Yahweh, since they ARE the very titles for BAAL, the host of heaven, or troop.
No, we have not just read all that. And while “lord” and “god” are terms that are used to refer to Baal, they do not mean Baal. They are, as you have said, just titles. Just like “vice president” or “chief executive”. They are descriptive titles, not absolutes.
And he’s still basing all of his argument off of Scripture, which he has proclaimed to be deceptive.
